Namma Kalvi

www.nammakalvi.in
GOVERNMENT HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL , VEEDUR – 605652
SOCIAL SCIENCE
10 TH ONE MARK QUESTIONS
History
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I . Choose the correct answer.
UNIT:1 Outbreak Of World War I and its Aftermath:
1. What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
a) Germany, Austria- Hungary and the Ottomans b) Germany, Austria- Hungary and Russia
c) Spain, Portugal and Italy d) Germany, Austria- Hungary, Italy
2. Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
a) Delville b) Orange State c) Adowa d) Algiers
3. Which country emerged as the strongest in Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
a) China b) Japan c) Korea d) Mongolia
4. Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
a) Lenin b) Marx c) Sun Yat-sen d) Mao Tsetung
5. What is the Battle of Marne is remembered for?
a) Air Warfare b) Trench Warfare c) Submarine Warfare d) Ship Warfare
6. Which country after the World War I took to policy of Isolation?
a) Britain b) France c) Germany d) USA
7. To which country the first Secretary General of League of Nations belonged?
a) Britain b) France c) Dutch d) USA
8. Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
a) Germany b) Russia c) Italy d) France

Unit 2 : The World between Two World Wars

9. With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
a) Germany b) Russia c) Pope d) Spain
10. With whose conquest the Mexican civilization collapsed?
a) Hernan Cortes b) Francisco Pizarro c) Toussaint Louverture d) Pedro I
11. Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
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a) English b) Spaniards c) Russians d) French

12. Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America
a) Roosevelt b) Truman c) Woodrow Wilson d) Eisenhower
13. Which part of the World disliked dollar Imperialism?
a) Europe b) Latin America c) India d) China
14. Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
a) Verwoerd b) Smut c) Herzog d) Botha
15. Which quickened the process of liberation in Latin America?
a) Support of US b) Napoleonic Invasion c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement d) French Revolution
16. Name the President who made amendment to Munro doctrine to justify American intervention
in the affairs of Latin America.
a) Theodore Roosevelt b) Truman c) Eisenhower d) Woodrow Wilson

Unit 3 : World War II

17. When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
a) 2 September,1945 b) 2 October,1945 c) 12 September,1945 d) 12 October,1945
18. Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
a) Roosevelt b) Chamberlain c) Woodrow Wilson d) Baldwin
19. Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
a) Battle of Guadalcanal b) Battle of Midway c) Battle of Leningrad d) Battle of El Alamein
20. Where did the US drop its first Atomic Bomb?
a) Kavashaki b) Innoshima c) Hiroshima d) Nagasaki
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21. Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?

a) Russians b) Arabs c) Turks d) Jews
22. Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany ?
a) Chamberlain b) Winston Churchill c) Lloyd George d) Stanley Baldwin
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23. When was the Charter of the UN signed?
a) June 26, 1942 b) June 26, 1945 c) January 1, 1942 d) January 1, 1945
24. Where is the Headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
a) New York b) Chicago c) London d) The Hague

UNIT 4: The World after World War II

25. Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
a) Sun Yat-Sen b) Chiang Kai-Shek c) Michael Borodin d) Chou En Lai
26. Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?.
a) Woodrow Wilson b) Truman c) Theodore Roosevelt d) Franklin Roosevelt
27. When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
a) September 1959 b) September 1948 c) September 1954 d) September 1949
28. The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in Europe.
a) SEATO b) NATO c) SENTO d) Warsaw Pact
29. Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?.
a) Hafez al -Assad b) Yasser Arafat c) Nasser d) Saddam Hussein
30. When was North and South Vietnam united?
a) 1975 b) 1976 c) 1973 d) 1974
31. Where was Arab League formed?
a) Cairo b) Jordan c) Lebanon d) Syria
32. When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
a) 1979 b) 1989 c) 1990 d) 1991

UNIT 5: Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th - Century

33. In which year was Sati abolished?
a) 1827 b) 1829 c) 1826 d) 1927
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34. What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
a) Arya Samaj b) Brahmo Samaj c) Prarthana Samaj d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
35. Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of1856?
a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy c) Annie Besant d) Jyotiba Phule
36. Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
a) Parsi Movement b) Aligarh Movement c) Ramakrishna Mission d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
37. Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
a) Baba Dayal Das b) Baba Ramsingh c) Gurunanak d) Jyotiba Phule
38. Who was Swami Shradhananda?
a) a disciple of Swami Vivekananda b) one who caused split in Brahmo Samaj of India
c) one who caused split in the Arya Samaj d) founder of Samathuva Samajam.
39. Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
a) M.G. Ranade b) Devendranath Tagore c ) Jyotiba Phule d) Ayyankali
40. Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash ?
a) Dayananda Saraswathi b) Vaikunda Swamy c) Annie Besant d) Swami Shradanatha

Volume - II
Unit – 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu
41. Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial
aggrandizement?
a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar c) Velunachiyar d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
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42. Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred
during the Carnatic wars?
a) Velunachiyar b) Puli Thevar c) Nawab of Arcot d) Raja of Travancore
43. Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
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a) Velunachiyar b) Kattabomman c) Puli Thevar d) Oomai thurai
44. Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
a) Kayathar b) Nagalapuram c) Virupachi d) Panchalamkurichi
45. Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar c) Veerapandya Kattabomman d) Gopala Nayak
46. When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
a) 24 May 1805 b) 10 July 1805 c) 10 July 1806 d) 10 September 1806
47. Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore fort?
a) Col. Fancourt b) Major Armstrong c) Sir John Cradock d) Colonel Agnew
48. Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
a) Calcutta b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Mysore

Unit – 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the Birth of Nationalism

49. Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
a) Wahhabi Rebellion b) Farazi Movement c) Tribal uprising d) Kol Revolt
50. Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
a) Titu Mir b) Sidhu c) Dudu Mian d) Shariatullah
51. Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under
Permanent Settlement?
a) Santhals b) Titu Mir c) Munda d) Kol
52. Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
a) Dadabhai Naoroji b) Justice Govind Ranade c) Bipin Chandra pal d) Romesh Chandra
53. When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
a) 19 June 1905 b) 18 July 1906 c) 19 August 1907 d) 16 October 1905
54. What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
a) Kol Revolt b) Indigo Revolt c) Munda Rebellion d) Deccan Riots
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55. Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
a) Annie Basant b) Bipin Chandra Pal c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) Tilak
56. Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play
Nil darpan?
a) Dina Bandhu Mitra b) Romesh Chandra Dutt c) Dadabhai Naoroji d) Birsa Munda

Unit – 8 Nationalism Gandhian Phase

57. Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
a) Motilal Nehru b) Saifuddin Kitchlew c) Mohamed Ali d) Raj Kumar Shukla
58. In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
a) Bombay b) Madras c) Lucknow d) Nagpur
59. Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
a) 26th January 1930 b) 26th December 1929 c) 16th June 1946 d) 15th January 1947
60. When was the first Forest Act enacted?
a) 1858 b) 1911 c) 1865 d) 1936
61. On 8 January 1933 which day was observed ____________.
a) Temple Entry Day b) Day of Deliverance c) Direct Action Day d) Independence Day
62. Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
a) 1858 Act b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
c) Government of India Act, 1919 d) Government of India Act, 1935
63. Who defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaya, Gandhi’s candidate, and became the President of the
Congress in1939?
a) Rajendra Prasad b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Subhas Chandra Bose d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
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64. Where was Gandhi when India attained independence on 15th August 1947?
a) New Dehi b) Ahmedabad c) Wardha d) Noakhali

Unit – 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

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65. Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
a) T.M. Nair b) P. Rangaiah c) G. Subramaniam d) G.A. Natesan
66. Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
a) Marina b) Mylapore c) Fort St. George d) Thousand Lights
67. Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection”?
a) Annie Besant b) M. Veeraraghavachari c) B.P. Wadia d) G.S. Arundale
68. Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
a) Dravidian b) Andhra Prakasika c) Justice d) New India
69. Who among the following were Swarajists?
a) S. Satyamurti b) Kasturirangar c) P. Subbarayan d) Periyar EVR
70. Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
a) Kamaraj b) Rajaji c) K. Santhanam d) T. Prakasam
71. Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
a) Erode b) Madras c) Salem d) Madurai
72. Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
a) Erode b) Madras c) Salem d) Madurai

Unit – 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

73. __________ was the pioneer of social Reformers in India.
a) C.W. Damotharanar b) Periyar c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Maraimalai Adigal
74. __________ established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
a) Caldwell b) F.W. Ellis c) Ziegenbalg d) Meenakshisundaram
75. __________ was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
a) KudiArasu b) Puratchi c) Viduthalai d) Paguththarivu
76. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by __________
a) Nationalism b) Iconoclasm c) Rationalism d) Spiritualism
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77. __________ founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.

a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan b) B. R. Ambedkar c) Rajaji d) M. C. Rajah
78. India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in__________.
a) 1918 b) 1917 c) 1916 d) 1914
79. __________ was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government
officials.
a) Staff Selection Board b) Public Service Commission
c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board d) Staff Selection Commission
80. __________ was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in
Madras Province.
a) M. C. Rajah b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan c) T.M. Nair d) P. Varadarajulu

GEOGRAPHY
Unit I : India – Location, Releif and Drainage
1. The north – south extent of India is --------- a). 2, 500 km b).2,933 km c). 3,214 km d). 2, 814km
2. The Southern most point of India is -------------
a). Andaman b). Kanyakumari c). Indira Point d). Kavaratti
3. The extent of Himalyas in the east-west is about ---------
a). 2,500 km b). 2,400 km c). 800 km d). 2,200 km
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4. ------------------------------ River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
a). Narmada b). Godavari c). Kosi d). Damodar
5. Deccan Plateau covers an area of about ------------- sq.km.
a). 8 lakh b). 6 lakh c). 5 lakh d). 7 lakh
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6. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as -----------------
a). Coast b). Island c). Peninsula d). Strait
7. The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from ------------
a). Goa b). West Bengal c). Sri Lanka d). Maldives
8. The highest peak in South India is ---------------------------------------
a). Ooty b). Kodaikana c). Anaimudi d). Jindhagada
9. ------------- Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
a). Bhabar b). Tarai c). Bhangar d). Khadar
10. Pulicat Lake is located between the states of ------------------------------
a). West Bengal and Odisha b). Karnataka and Kerala
c). Odisha and Andhra Pradesh d). Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.

Unit 2 : Climate and Natural Vegetation of India

11. Meteorology is the science of --------------------------------
a) Weather b) Social c) Political d) Human
12. We wear cotton during ---------------------------------
a) Summer b) Winter c) Rainy d) Northeast monsoon
13. Western disturbances cause rainfall in --------------------------------
a) Tamil Nadu b) Kerala c) Punjab d) Madhya Pradesh
14. --------------- helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the Coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
a) Loo b) Norwester c) Mango showers d) Jet stream
15. ---------------------- is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
a) Isohyets b) Isobar c) Isotherm d) Latitudes
16. Climate of India is labelled as ----------------------------------.
a) Tropical humid b) Equatorial Climate c) Tropical Monsoon Climate d) Temperate Climate
17. The monsoon forests are otherwise called as -------------------------------
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a) Tropical Evergreen Forest b) Deciduous Forest c) Mangrove Forest d) Mountain Forest
18. ----------------------------------------------- forests are found above 2400m Himalayas.
a) Deciduous Forests b) Alpine Forests c) Mangrove Forests d) Tidal Forests
19. Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in ----------------------------------
a) Tamil Nadu b) Andhra Pradesh c) Madhya Pradesh d) Karnataka
20. ------------------- is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
a) Nilgiri b) Agasthiyamalai c) Great Nicobar d) Kachch

Unit 3: Components of Agriculture

21. The soil which is rich in iron oxides is -----------------------------------.
a) Alluvial b) Black c) Red d) Alkaline
22. Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research b) Indian Meteorological Department
c) Soil Survey of India d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
23. The soils formed by the rivers are:
a) Red soils b) Black soils c) Desert soils d) Alluvial soils
24. ------------ dam is the highest gravity in India.
a) Hirakud dam b) Bhakra Nangal dam c) Mettur dam d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
25. ---------------------------------------- is a cash crop.
a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Rice d) Maize
26. Black soils are also called as-------------------
a) Arid soils b) Saline soils c) Regur soils d) Mountain soils
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27. The longest dam in the world is ---------------------------------------

a) Mettur dam b) Kosi dam c) Hirakud dam d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
28. The leading producer of rice in India is --------------------------------------------
a) Punjab b) Maharashtra c) Uttar Pradesh d) West Bengal
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29. Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Jute d) Tobacco
30. The state which leads in the production of coffee is --------------------------------------
a) West Bengal b) Karnataka c) Odisha d) Punjab

Unit 4 :Resources and Industries:

31. Manganese is used in ---------------------
a) Storage batteries b) Steel Making c) Copper smelting d) Petroleum Refining
32. The Anthracite coal has --------------------------
a) 80 to 95% Carbon b) Above 70% Carbon c) 60 to 7% Carbon d) Below 50% Carbon
33. The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and ------------------
a) Oxygen b) Water c) Carbon d) Nitrogen
34. The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is -----------------------
a) Chennai b) Salem c) Madurai d) Coimbatore
35. The first Jute mill of India was established at ------------------------------
a) Kolkata b) Mumbai c) Ahmedabad d) Baroda
36. The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in ---------------------
a) Gujarat b) Rajasthan c) Maharashtra d) Tamil Nadu
37. The most abundant source of energy is -------------------------------
a) Bio mass b) Sun c) Coal d) Oil
38. The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in -------------------------
a) Jharkhand b) Bihar c) Rajasthan d) Assam
39. The nucleus for the development of the Chotanagpur Plateau Region is ----------
a) Transport b) Mineral Deposits c) Large demand d) Power Availability
40. One of the shore based steel plants of India is located at --------------------------
a) Kolkata b) Tuticorin c) Goa d) Visakhapatnam
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Unit 5 : India - Population, Transport, Communication & Trade

41. The scientific study of different aspects of population is called ------------------------
a) Photography b) Demography c) Choreography d) Population density.
42. The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is ------------------------
a) Tamil Nadu b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) Uttar Pradesh
43. Human Development is measured in terms of -------------------------------------
a) Human Resource Index b) Per capita index c) Human Development Index d) UNDP
44. ----------------- transport provides door to door services.
a) Railways b) Roadways c) Airways d) Waterways.
45. The length of Golden Quadrilateral super highways in India is -----------------------
a) 5846 km b) 5847 km c) 5849 km d) 5800 km
46. The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is --------------------------------
a) 17,500 km b) 5000 km c) 14,500 km d) 1000 km
47. The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at ------------------------
a) Bengaluru b) Chennai c) Delhi d) Hyderabad
48. The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is --------------------------------------
a) Roadways b) Railways c) Airways d) Waterways
49. Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
a) Air India b) Indian Airlines c) Vayudoot d) Pavan Hans
50. The major import item of India is -----------------------------------------------------
a) Cement b) Jewells c) Tea d) Petroleum
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 Volume – II
Unit - 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu

51. The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is

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a) 8°5′N to 13°35′N b) 8°5′S to 13°35′S c) 8°0′N to 13°5′N d) 8°0′S to 13°05′S
52. The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
a) 76°18′ E to 80°20′E b) 76°18′ W to 80°20′W c) 86°18′ E to 10°20′E d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′W
53. The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
a) Anaimudi b) Doddabetta c) Mahendragiri d) Servarayan
54. Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
a) Palghat b) Shencottah c) Bhorghat d) Achankoil
55. Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
a) Periyar b) Cauvery c) Chittar d) Bhavani
56. The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
a) Ramanathapuram b) Nagapattinam c) Cuddalore d) Theni
57. The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is
a) 20.21% b) 20.31% c) 21.20% d) 21.30%
58. Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from
a) Arabian sea b) Bay of Bengal c) Indian Ocean d) Timor sea
59. Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
a) Theni b) Madurai c) Thanjavur d) Ramanathapuram
60. The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
a) Dharmapuri b) Vellore c) Dindigul d) Erode

Unit - 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

61. The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
a) Cauvery delta b) Mahanadi delta c) Godavari delta d) Krishna delta
62. Second staple food of the people ofTamil Nadu is
a) Pulses b) Millets c) Oilseeds d) Rice
63. Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is
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a) 80.32% b) 62.33% c) 73.45% d) 80.33%

64. A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is
a) Mettur b) Papansam c) Sathanur d) Thungabahdra
65. Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are
a) 3and15 b) 4 and15 c) 3 and16 d) 4 and15

CIVICS
Unit 1: Indian Constitution
1. Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
2. How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Never
3. The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens ------------
(a) Double Citizenship (b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and Double in others (d) None of the above
4. A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through
(a) Descent (b) Registration (c) Naturalisation d) All of the above
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5. Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
6. One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
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(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women Government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
7. If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to
(a) The Parliament (b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India (d) The Supreme court of India
8. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the
Constitution? (a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies (d) Right to property
9. How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires (b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency (d) All of the above
10. We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the --------------------------
(a) American Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) Russian Constitution (d) Irish Constitution
11. The Directive Principles can be classified into ---------------------------
(a) Liberal and Communist principles (b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles (d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
12. Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
13. The procedure for the Amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in ------------------
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
14. Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State
Relations? 1. Sarkaria Commission 2. Rajamannar Committee 3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 3
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Unit 2: Central Government

15. The Constitutional Head of the Union is -----------------------------------
a) The President b) The Chief Justice c) The Prime Minister d) Council of Ministers
16. Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
a) Army b) The Prime Minister c) The President d) Judiciary

17. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
a) The President b) Attorney General c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
18. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the ----------:
a) The President b) Lok Sabha c) The Prime Minister d) Rajya Sabha
19. The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
a) Senior most member of Parliament b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
c) The President of India d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
20. What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
a) 18 years b) 21 years c) 25 years d) 30 years
21. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
a) The President b) The Prime Minister c) State Government d) Parliament
22. Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
a) Article 352 b) Article 360 c) Article 356 d) Article 365
23. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by the--------
a) President b) Attorney General of India c) Governor d) Prime Minister
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24. Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under:
a) Appellate Jurisdiction b) Original Jurisdiction c) Advisory Jurisdiction d) None of these
25. If you are elected as the President of India, Which of the following decision can you take on your
own? a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister
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b) Ask for reconsideration of bill passed by both the Houses c) Select the person you like as Prime
Minister d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha

Unit 3: State Government

26. The Governor of the State is appointed by the ----
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) President (d) Chief Justice
27. The Speaker of a State is a --------
(a) Head of State (b) Head of Government (c) President’s Agent (d) None of these
28. Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative (b) Executive (c) Judicial d) Diplomatic
29. Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo - Indian Community to the State Legislative
Assembly?
(a) The President (b) The Governor (c) The Chief Minister (d) The Speaker of State Legislature
30. The Governor does not appoint -------------------------
(a) Chief Minister (b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State (d) Judges of the High Court
31. The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by ------------------------
(a) The State Legislature (b) The Governor
(c) The President (d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
32. The State Council of Ministers is headed by -----------------------------------
(a) The Chief Minster (b) The Governor (c) The Speaker (d) The Prime Minister
33The Legislative Council ------------------ (a) Has a term of five years (b) Has a term of six years
(c) Is a permanent house (d) Has a term of four years
34. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is -------------------------
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
35. The members of Legislative Council are -------------------------------
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(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly (b) Mostly nominated (c) Elected by local bodies,
graduates, teachers Legislative Assembly etc (d) Directly elected by the people
36. Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
37. The High Courts in India were first started at---------------------------
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras (d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
38. Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala and Telungana
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Maharashtra and Gujarat

Volume – II
Unit – 4 India’s Foreign Policy
39. Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
a) Defense Minister b) Prime Minister c) External Affairs Minister d) Home Minister
40. The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between
a) India and Nepal b) India and Pakistan c) India and China d) India and Sri Lanka
41. Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
a) Article 50 b) Article 51 c) Article 52 d) Article 53
42. Apartheid is
a) An international association b) Energy diplomacy
c) A policy of racial discrimination d) None of these
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43. The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to
a) Trade and Commerce b) Restoration of normal relations
c) Cultural exchange programmes d) The Five Principles of Co existence
44. Which is not related to our foreign policy
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a) World co operation b) World peace c) Racial equality d) Colonialism
45. Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
a) Yugoslavia b) Indonesia c) Egypt d) Pakistan
46. Find the odd one
a) Social welfare b) Health care c) Diplomacy d) Domestic affairs
47. Non-Alliance means
a) being neutral b) freedom to decide on issues independently
c) demilitarisation d) none of the above
48. Non – military issues are
a) Energy security b) Water security c) Pandemics d) All the above.

Unit – 5 India’s International Relations

49. Mc Mahon Line is a border between
a) Burma and India b) India and Nepal c) India and China d) India and Bhutan
50. India is not a member of which of the following 1) G20 2) ASEAN 3) SAARC 4) BRICS
Select the correct option
a) 4 only b) 2 and 4 c) 2, 4 and 1 d) 1, 2 and 3
51. OPEC is
a) An international insurance Co. b) An international sports club
c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries d) An international company
52. With which country does India share its longest land border?
a) Bangladesh b) Myanmar c) Afghanistan d) China
53. Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal iii) Chukha hydroelectric
project - 3. Afghanistan iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan
a) 3 1 4 2 b) 3 1 2 4 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 4 3 2 1
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54. How many countries share its border with India?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
55. Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
c) Maldieves and Nicobar island d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
56. Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Meghalaya c) Mizoram d) Sikkim
57. How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Two
58. Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
a) Lord Mountbatten b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe c) Clement Atlee d) None of the above.

ECONOMICS
Unit 1: Gross Domestic Product and its Growth : An Introduction
1. GNP equals , -------------------------------
a) NNP adjusted for inflation b) GDP adjusted for inflation
c) GDP plus net property income from abroad d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
2. National Income is a measure of -------------------------
a) Total value of money b) Total value of producer goods
c) Total value of consumption goods d) Total value of goods and services
3. Primary sector consist of ---------------------------
a) Agriculture b) Automobiles c) Trade d) Banking
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4. ------------ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate
the value of the final good.
a) Expenditure approach b) Value added approach c) Income approach d) National Income
5. Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
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a) Agricultural sector b) Industrial sector c) Service sector d) None of the above.
6. Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ----- lakh crore in 2018 -19.
a) 91.06 b) 92.26 c) 80.07 d) 98.29
7. India is ----------------- larger producer in agricultural product.
a) 1st b) 3rd c) 4th d) 2nd
8. India ‘s life expectancy at birth is --------------------------------------
a) 65 b) 60 c) 70 d) 55
9. Which one is a trade policy?
a) Irrigation Policy b) Import and export Policy c) Land – reform Policy d) Wage policy
10. Indian Economy is ---------------------------------
a) Developing Economy b) Emerging Economy c) Dual Economy d) All the above

UNIT 2 :Globalization and Trade

11. Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) ?
a) Ministerial conference b) Director General c) Deputy Director General d) None of these
12. How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
a) 159 b) 164 c) 148 d) 128
13. Colonial advent in India
a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
14. Who first came to India for trading purpose?
a) Roman Empire b) Portuguese c) Dutch d) Danish
15. When did Portuguese colonize India?
a) 1600 BC b) 1602 BC c) 1498 BC d) 1616 BC
16. GATT’s first round held in --------
a) Tokyo b) Uruguay c) Torquay d) Geneva
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17. India signed the Dunket proposal in

a) 1984 b) 1976 c) 1950 d) 1994
18. Who granted the English “Golden Fireman” in 1632?
a) Jahangir b) Sultan of Golconda c) Akbar d) Aurangzeb
19. Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in---------
a) June 1991 b) July 1991 c) July- Aug-1991 d) Aug 1991
20. Indian government was introduced----------- in 1991
a) Globalization b) World Trade Organisation c) New Economic Policy d) none

Volume – II
Unit – 3 Food Security and Nutrition
21. __________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function
of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
a) Availability of food b) Access to food c) Absorption of food d) none
22. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government
through the __________.
a) FCI b) Consumer Cooperatives c) ICICI d) IFCI
23. Which is correct?.
i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price iii) PDS–Public Distribution
System iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India
a) i and ii are correct b) iii and iv are correct c) ii and iii are correct d) all are correct
24. __________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
a) United States of America b) India c) Singapore d) UK
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25. __________ revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
a) Blue Revolution b) White Revolution c) Green Revolution d) Grey Revolution
26. __________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka
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27. __________ is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
a) Health b) Nutrition c) Sanitation d) Security
28. Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in __________.
a) 1980 b) 1975 c) 1955 d) 1985
29. __________ status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human
resources development.
a) Health b) Nutritional c) Economic d) Wealth
30. Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ________ service at free of cost.
a) 106 ambulance b) 108 ambulance c) 107 ambulance d) 105 ambulance

Unit – 4 Government and Taxes

31. The three levels of governments in India are
a) Union, state and local b) Central, state and village
c) Union, municipality and panchayat d) None of the above
32. In India, taxes are including
a) Direct taxes b) Indirect taxes. c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
33. Which is the role of government and development policies?.
a) Defence b) Foreign policy c) Regulate the economy d) all of above
34. The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is
a) Service tax b) Excise duty. c) Income tax d) Central sales tax
35. Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured
a) Value added tax (VAT) b) Income tax c) Goods and service tax d) Sales tax
36. Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year __________ .
a) 1860 b) 1870 c) 1880 d) 1850
37. __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
a) Income tax b) Wealth tax c) Corporate tax d) Excise duty
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38. What are identified as causes of black money?

a) Shortage of goods b) High tax rate c) Smuggling d) All of above
39. Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by
a) Individuals b) Corporations c) Trusts d) All of the above
40. Payments are
a) Fees and fines b) Penalities and forfeitures c) None of the above d) a and b

Unit – 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

41. ‘The Detroit of Asia’ is ___________.
a) Tuticorin b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Madurai
42. Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
a) Salem b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Dharampuri
43. Tuticorin is known as
a) Gateway of India b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu c) Pump city d) None of these
44. ___________ are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
a) agriculture b) industry c) railway d) none of these
45. Tiruppur is known for
a) Leather tanning b) Lock making c) Knitwear d) Agro-processing
46. Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ___________ is also a centre for leather goods exports.
a). Chennai b). Sivakasi c). Coimbatore d). Madurai
47. IT means
a) Indian Technology b) Information Technology c) Institute of Technology d) Initiative Technology
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48. A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
a) Hosur b) Dindigul c) Kovilpatti d) Tirunelveli
49. SIPCOT was formed in the year
a) 1972 b) 1976 c) 1971 d) 1978
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50. Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
a) SIPCOT b) TANSIDCO c) TIDCO d) All of these

II. Fill in the blanks:

HISTORY
UNIT:1 Outbreak Of World War I and its Aftermath:
1. Japan forced a war on China in the year ______
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the _________ signed in May 1913.
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year ______
4. In the Balkans ____________ had mixed population.
5. In the battle of Tannensberg ____________ suffered Heavy losses.
6. ___________ as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
7. ____________ became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and moderate Socialists
before Lenin established the Bolshevik Government.
8. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year __________________

UNIT 2 : The World between Two World Wars

9. The founder of Social Democratic Party was __________________
10. The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by __________________
11. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in __________________
12. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as __________________
13. The Union of South Africa came into being in May __________________
14. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for __________________years
15. _________________were a military nation.
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16. Boers were also known as __________________

UNIT 3 : World War II

17. Hitler attacked __________________ which was a demilitarised Zone.
18. The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as __________________
19. __________________started the Lend Lease programme.
20. Britain Prime Minister __________________ resigned in 1940.
21. Saluting the bravery of the _______________Churchill Said that “Never was so much owed by so
many to so few”.
22. __________________ is a device used to find out the enemies aircraft from a distance.
23. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights in 30 articles.
24. After the World War II __________________ was voted into Power in Great Britain.

UNIT 4: The World after World War II

25. __________________ was known as “The morning star of China”.
26. In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in __________________ University
27. After the death of Dr.Sun Yat Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang Party was ____________
28. _______________ is open to any Arab Nation desiring peace and security in the region.
29. The treaty of __________________ provided for mandates in Turkish –Arab Empire.
30. Germany joined the NATO in __________________
31. __________________ was the Head Quarters of the Council of Europe.
32. __________________ treaty signed on February 7, 1992 created the European Union.
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UNIT 5: Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th - Century
33. __________________ founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
34. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was __________________
35. Satyashodak Samaj was launched by __________________
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36. Gulumgir was written by _________________
37. Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of _____________
38. Ramakrishna Mission was established by __________________.
39. __________________ was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
40. ___________________ brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
41. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by __________________

Volume – II
Unit – 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu
42. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by ____________.
43. Except the Palayakkarars of ________ all other western Palayakkarars supported
Puli Thevar.
44. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of __________ for eight years.
45. Bennerman deputed __________ to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.
46. Kattabomman was hanged to death at ____________.
47. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the _____
48. ___________ was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
49. _____________ suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.

Unit - 7 Movements and the Birth of Nationalism

50. In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by ____________, the moneylenders of Bengal.
51. ____________ was an anti–imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and
around 1827.
52. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was ____________.
53. The ____________ Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
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54. Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ____________.

55. The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ________.
56. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ____________.
57. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year_________.

Unit - 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase

58. Gandhi was thrown out of the first class compartment in __________ station.
59. Gandhi regarded __________ as his political guru.
60. Khilafat Movement was led by _________.
61. Government of India Act 1919 introduced ________ in the provinces.
62. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by ________.
63. Ramsay Macdonald announced________ which provided separate electorates to the minorities
and the depressed classes.
64. __________ established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
65. __________ coined the term ‘Paksitan’.

Unit - 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

66. ____________ was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
67. The economic exploitation of India was exposed by ____________ through his writings.
68. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named ____________.
69. The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by ____________.
70. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by __________.
71. ____________ formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
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72. ____________ was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
73. ____________ hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.

Unit - 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

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74. __________ was the first non-European language that went into print.
75. The College of Fort St. George was founded by __________.
76. __________ is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
77. __________ was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
78. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as __________
79. __________ gave prominence to Tamil music.
80. The first Woman Legislator in India was __________.

Geography
Volume – II
Unit - 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu
1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is __________.
2. __________ is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between __________ and __________ branches of
cauvery.
4. __________ soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
5. __________is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in __________

Unit - 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

6. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ___________ % of its economy.
7. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ____________.
8. Tamil Nadu ranks ____________ in India with a share of over 20% in total road
projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
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9. ___________ is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
10. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ___________

CIVICS
Unit 1: Indian Constitution
1. The concept of constitution first originated in __________________.
2. ________________ was elected as the temporary President of the Consituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on __________________
4. __________________ writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article __________________

Unit 2: Central Government

6. __________________ Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval .
7. __________________ is the leader of the nation and Chief spokes person of the country.
8. __________________ is the Ex-officio Chair Person of the Rajya Sabha.
9. The President generally nominates two Members belonging to _____ community to the Lok Sabha
10. ________ has the right to speak and to Take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the
Parliament.
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11. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age________
years.
12. __________________is the Guardian of the Constitution.
13. At present, the Supreme Court consists of Judges _________ including the Chief Justice.
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Unit 3: State Government
14. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to __________________.
15. Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) elected by the __________________.
16. __________________ is the first Women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
17. _________________ acts as the Chancellor of Universities in the State.
18. The Seventh Amendment Act ______ authorised the Parliament to establish a common high
court for two or more states.
19. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission were can be removed only
by the _________.

Volume – II
Unit – 4 India’s Foreign Policy
20. India conducted its first nuclear test at ___________.
21. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ____for domestic growth and
development.
22. ____________is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
23. _____________ was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
24. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice____________.

Unit - 5 India’s International Relations

25. ____________ is a small Himalayan kingdom.
26. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ____________.
27. ____________ is a buffer country between India and China.
30. A strip of land ____________, belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
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31. ____________ is known as the Land of thunderbolt.

32. India and Sri Lanka are separated by ____________.

ECONOMICS
Unit 1: Gross Domestic Product and its Growth : An Introduction
1. __________________ sector is largest sector in India.
2. GDP is the indicator of __________________economy.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as __________________.
4. __________________ sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
5. India is __________________largest economy of the world .
6. India is __________________fastest growing nation of the world.
7. ___________ policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining rapid
economic growth of GDP

UNIT 2 :Globalization and Trade

8. The Dutch captured Pondicherry in __________________
9. A better economy introduce rapid development of the __________________
10. The East India Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as __________________
11. WTO Agreement came into force from __________________
12. The term Globalization invented by __________________
13. French East India company established Second factory at __________________.
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 Volume – II
Unit - 3 Food Security and Nutrition
14. __________ foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
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15. __________ is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
16. In the year ___________ National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
17. ___________ play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible
rates to common people.
18. ___________ is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services
that one unit of money can buy.

Unit – 4 Government and Taxes

19. __________ is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy.
20. The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word __________.
21. The burden of the __________ tax cannot be shifted to others.
22. __________ tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
23. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on __________.
24. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called _________.

Unit – 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

25. ___________ are very important in the modern economic activates of man.
26. ___________ are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and
technologies.
27. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ___________ District in Tamil Nadu.
28. ___________ is fondly calls as ‘Little Japan’.
29. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in ___________.
30. ___________ is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.
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III. Choose the correct statement

HISTORY
UNIT:1 Outbreak Of World War I and its Aftermath:
1. i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) iii) is correct c) iv) is correct d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
2. i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.
ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) i) and iii) are correct c) iv) is correct d) i), ii) and iv) are correct
3. Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured
goods and capturing England’s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
4. Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
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UNIT 2 : The World between Two World Wars

5. i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the
Southern Front
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ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) iii) is correct c) iii) and iv) are correct d) i), ii) and iii) are correct
6. Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected
the world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
7. Assertion: The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884–85 had resolved that Africa should be divided
into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this
resolution.
a) Both A and R are right b) A is right but R is not the right reason
c) Both A and R are wrong d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A

UNIT 3: World War II

8. i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.
ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.
iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.
iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) i) and iii) are correct
c) iii) and iv) are correct d) (i ) is correct and ii), iii) and iv) are wrong
9. Assertion: President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of
isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
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a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A

UNIT 4: The World after World War II

10. i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated
minority, initiated a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to
the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
11. i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of
Eastern Europe that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from
gaining ground in the region.
iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
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12. Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war-ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe under
its influence.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
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b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

UNIT 5: Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th - Century

13. i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
ii) He encouraged idolatry
iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William Bentinck
a) i) is correct b) i) and ii) are correct c) i), ii) and iii) are correct d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
14. i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
iv) Prarthana Samaj had it’s origin in the Punjab.
a) i) is correct b) ii) is correct c) i) and ii) are correct d) iii) and iv) are correct
15. i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care,
relief in time of calamities.
ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
a) i) is correct b) i) and ii) are correct c) iii) is correct d) iv) alone correct
16. Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows
Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion c) Both are wrong
d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
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Volume – II
Unit – 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu
17. i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the, Company
administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
18. i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in
restoring the throne to her.
iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv )are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
19. Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the
Marathas.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) b) Both (A) and (R)
are wrong c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
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20. Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition
of a leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
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explanation of (A) c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)

Unit – 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the Birth of Nationalism

21. (i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial
revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government officers and
moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, led the Santhal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
22. (i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs
to God”
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be
annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the
lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indian princes and
zamindars remained loyal to the British.
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
23. (i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian
Nationalists was the formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the primary reason
for the growing poverty.
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(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the
nationalist movement.
a) (i) and (iii) are correct b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
24. Assersion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a
direct proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
25. Assersion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct c) Both (A) and (R) are
correct and R is the correct explanation of A d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the
correct explanation of A

Unit - 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase

26. (i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and
Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
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a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct c) (iv) is correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
27. (i) Hindustan Republican Army was formed in Kanpur in 1924.
(ii) Ram Prasad Bismil was tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
(iii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Surya Sen.
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(iv) Chittagong Armoury Raid was carried out by B.K. Dutt.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct c) (iii) is correct d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
28. Assertion (A): The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
Reason (R):Gandhi-Irwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) A is wrong but R is correct d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
29. Assertion (A): The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason (R): The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected
Congress ministries.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

Unit - 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

30. (i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct c) (iv) is correct d) All are correct
31. (i) EVR did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct c) (ii) is correct d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
32. Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation b) A is correct but R is wrong
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c) Both A and R are wrong d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
33. Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature.
Reason (R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

Unit - 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

34. (i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and
literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with
Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct c) (iv) is correct d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
35. (i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists
Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Hindu Mahasabha
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins
from the North.
a) (iii) and (iv) are correct b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
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36. Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in Madras
Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
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c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
37. Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the
introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason b) Both A and R are wrong
c) Both A and R are right d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A

GEOGRAPHY:
Unit 2 : Climate and Natural Vegetation of India
1. Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon
Reason(R):Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
c) (A) is correct (R) is false d) (A) is false (R) is true
2. Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian
Sub-continent warm.(Give option for this questions)
a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
c) (A) is correct (R) is false d) (A) is false (R) is true

Unit 3: Components of Agriculture

3. Assertion (A): Horticulture involves cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not
explain (A) (c) (A) is correct (R) is false (d) (A) is false (R) is true
4. Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials
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brought by the rivers.

Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does
not explain (A) (c) (A) is correct (R) is false (d) (A) is false (R) is true

Volume – II
Unit - 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu
5. Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A). b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R)
does not explain (A). c) (A) is true but, (R) is false. d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
6. Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides
Reason (R): It is formed by leaching
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A). b) Both (A) and (R) are true but,
(R) does not explain (A). c) (A) is true but, (R) is false. d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.

Unit - 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

7. Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of
Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the states economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does
not explain (A) (c) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
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8. Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu
Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does
not explain (A) (c) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) (A) is false but (R) is false
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CIVICS
Unit 2: Central Government Unit
1. i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
ii) The 12 nominated members shall bechosen by the President from amongst
persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service
iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct c) i & iv are correct d) i, ii & iii are correct
2. i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the
age of 62 years.
ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court.
iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct c) i & iv are correct d) i & ii are correct
3. Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved
Reason (R): One third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years,
and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
a) (A) is false but R is true b) (A) is false but (R) is true c) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct reason for(A) d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) isnot the correct
reason for(A)

Unit 3: State Government

4. i) Only some States in India have Legislative Councils.
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ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.

iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct c) i & iv are correct d) i, & ii are correct
5. Assertion (A): Th ere are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the
President’s approval.
a) (A) is false but R is true b) (A) is true but (R) is false c) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct reason for (A) d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason
for(A)

Volume – II
Unit – 4 India’s Foreign Policy
6. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct
answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel (ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran (iii) Twenty-year Treaty (iv) First Nuclear test
a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
7. Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iii) and (iv) c) (ii) only d) (iv) only
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8. Write true or false against each of the statement.
a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done underSubterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
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9. Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(B): This began with a disastrous Indo –China war of 1962
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is Wrong d) Both A and R are wrong.
10. Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is wrong and R is correct d) Both are wrong
11. Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to
redeemed from
a) acute poverty b) illiteracy c) chaotic socio-economic conditions d) all the above

Unit – 5 India’s International Relations

12. The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following
modes of transport?
1. Roads 2. Railways 3. Shipping 4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and
Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A b) A is correct and R is not the correct
explanation of A c) A is wrong and R is correct d) Both are wrong
14. Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1. ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2. Mayanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
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Statement 3. Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.

Statement 4. Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
15. Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial
production.
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is wrong and R is correct
c) Both are correct d) Both are wrong

ECONOMICS
Unit 1: Gross Domestic Product and its Growth : An Introduction
1. The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
I. Low per capita income.
II. Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
III. Poor contribution of household sector.
IV. Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.
a) I, II, IV are correct b) I, II and III are correct
c) I, II, III and IV are correct d) I, III and IV are correct

UNIT 2 :Globalization and Trade

2. I) The East Indian Company specially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade
and later added cotton, silk, Indigo.
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II) Merchants of the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut
III) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
a) I is correct b) II and III are correct c) I and III are correct d) I, II and III are correct
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Volume – II
Unit – 3 Food Security and Nutrition
3. Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the
purchasing power is affected.
a) A is correct, R is false b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

Unit – 4 Government and Taxes

4. Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State
governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct d) All are correct
5. Choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iv) c) (i) d) (ii) and (iii)

Unit – 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

6. Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
II. They are not provide large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and
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professionals.
III. Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income
IV. Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
a) I and IV is correct b) I only correct c) III and IV is correct d) I and III is correct

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

HISTORY
UNIT:1 Outbreak Of World War I and its Aftermath:
1. Treaty of Brest – Litovsk a. Versailles
2. Jingoism b. Turkey
3. Kemal Pasha c. Russia with Germany
4. Emden d. England
5. Hall of Mirrors e. Madras

UNIT 2 : The World between Two World Wars

6. Transvaal a. Germany
7. Tongking b. Hitler
8. Hindenburg c. Italy
9. Third Reich d. Gold
10. Matteotti e. guerilla activities
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UNIT 3: World War II

11. Blitzkrieg a. Roosevelt
12. Royal Navy b. Stalingrad
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13. Lend Lease c. Solomon Island
14. Volga d. Britain
15. Guadalcanal e. Lightning Strike

UNIT 4: The World after World War II

16.. Dr. Sun Yat- Sen a. South Vietnam
17. Syngman Rhee b. Kuomintung
18. Anwar Sadat c. South Korea
19. Ho-Chi Minh d. Egypt
20. Ngo Dinh Diem e. North Vietnam

UNIT 5: Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th - Century

21. Ayyavazhi a. Widows Remarriage Reform Act
22. Thiruvarutpa b. Nirankari
23. Baba Dayal Das c. Adi Bramo Samaj
24. Iswarchandra Vidyasagar d. Vaikunda Swamigal
25. Debendranath e. Songs of Grace
Volume – II
Unit – 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu
26. Theerthagiri a. Vellore Revolt
27. Gopala Nayak b. Ramalinganar
28. Bannerman c. Dindigul
29. Subedar Sheik Adam d. Vellore Fort
30. Col. Fancourt e. Odanilai
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Unit – 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the Birth of Nationalism

31. Wahhabi Rebellion a. Lucknow
32. Munda Rebellion b. Peshwa Baji Rao II
33. Begum Hazarat Mahal c. Titu Mir
34. Kunwar Singh d Ranchi
35. Nana Sahib e. Bihar

Unit – 8 Nationalism Gandhian Phase

36. Rowlatt Act a. Surrender of titles
37. Non Cooperation Movement b. Dyarchy
38. Government of India Act, 1919 c. M.N. Roy
39. Communist Party of India d. Direct Action Day
40. 16th August 1946 e. Black Act

Unit – 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

41. MNA a. Anti-Hindi agitation
42. EVR Periyar b. Removal of Neill Statue
43. S.N. Somayajulu c. Salt Satyagraha
44. Vedaranyam d.Torture Commission
45. Thalamuthu e. Vaikom Hero
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Unit – 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu
46. Dravidian Home a.Maraimalai Adigal
47. Thozhilalan b. Rettaimalai Srinivasan
48. Tani Tamil Iyakkam c. Singaravelar
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49.Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam d. Natesanar

GEOGRAPHY:
Unit I : India – Location, Releif and Drainage
1. Tsangpo a. Tributary of River Ganga.
2. Yamuna b. Highest peak in India
3. New alluvium c. River Brahmaputra in Tibet
4. Mt. Godwin Austen (K2) d. Southern part of East Coastal Plain.
5. Coromandel Coast e. Khadhar.

Unit 2 : Climate and Natural Vegetation of India

6. Project Elephant a. Desert and Semi Desert Vegetation.
7. Biodiversity hotspot b. October-December.
8. North East Monsoon c. Littoral forest.
9. Tropical thorn Forests d. Protect the Elephants. .
10. Coastal Forests e. The Himalayas.

Unit 3: Components of Agriculture

11. Sugar bowl of India a. Mahanadi.
12. Coffee b. Golden Revolution.
13. Tehri c. Karnataka.
14. Hirakud d. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
15. Horticulture e. Highest Dam in the India.
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Unit 4 :Resources and Industries:

16 .Bauxite a. Cement.
17. Gypsum b. Aircraft.
18. Black Gold c. Electrical Goods.
19. Iron ore d. Coal.
20. Mica e. Magnetite.
II
21. Detroit of India a. Gujarat.
22. Thermal power plant b.Thiruvananthapuram.
23. Wind Farm c. Andhra Pradesh.
24. Tidal energy d. 1975.
25. Solar power e. Chennai.

UNIT – 5 INDIA - POPULATION, TRANSPORT, COMMUNICATION & TRADE

26. Border Road Organisation a. Satellite Communication.
27. INSAT b. Impact of Urbanization.
28. Mazagaon Dock c. 1990.
29. Urban Sprawl d. Mumbai.
30. Konkan Railways e. 1960.
f. Hyderabad
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 Volume – II
Unit – 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu
31. Winter season a. Pre-monsoon
32. Summer season b. June to September
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33. Southwest monsoon c. March to May
34. North east monsoon d. January and February
35. Mango Shower e. October to December

Unit – 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

36. Bauxite a. Salem
37. Gypsum b. Servaroy hills
38. Iron c. Coimbatore
39. Limestone d.Tiruchirapalli

CIVICS
Unit 1: Indian Constitution
1. Citizenship Act a. Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. The Preamble b. 42nd Amendment.
3. The Mini Constitution c. 1955.
4. Classical Language d. 1962.
5. National Emergency e. Tamil.

Unit 2: Central Government Unit

6. Article 53 a. State Emergency.
7. Article 63 b. Internal Emergency.
8. Article 356 c. Executive Power of President.
9. Article 76 d. Office of the Vice President.
10. Article 352 e. Office of the Attorney General.
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Unit 3: State Government

11. Governor a. Head of the Government.
12. Chief Minister b. Head of the State.
13. Council of Ministers c. Tribunals.
14. MLC d. Responsible for the Assembly.
15. Armed forces e. Cannot vote for Grants.
Volume – II
Unit – 4 India’s Foreign Policy
16. Indian Ocean island a. 1955
17. Land bridge to ASEAN b. 1954
18. Panchsheel c. Maldives
19. Afro Asian Conference d. Foreign Policy
20. World Peace e. Myanmar

Unit – 5 India’s International Relations

21. Brandix a. Vienna
22. COMCASA b. Japan
23. Shinkansen system c. Shanghai
24. BRICS d. USA
25. OPEC e. Garment city in Vishakapatnam
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ECONOMICS
Unit 1: Gross Domestic Product and its Growth : An Introduction

1.Electricity/Gas and Water a. National Income / Population.

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2. Price Policy b. Gross National Product.
3. GST c. Industry Sector.
4. Per capita Income d. Agriculture.
5. C + I + G + (X-M) e. Tax on Goods and Service.

UNIT 2 :Globalization and Trade

6. Multination Corporation in India a. 1947.

7. MNC b. Enforce International Trade.
8. GATT c. Minimize cost of Production.
9. 8 th Uruguay Round d. Infosis.
10. WTO e. 1986.
Volume – II
Unit – 3 Food Security and Nutrition
11. Consumer cooperatives a. subsidized rates
12. Public Distribution System b. 2013
13. UNDP c. least poor region
14. National Food Security Act d. supply of quality goods
15. Kerala e. United Nations Development Programme
Unit – 4 Government and Taxes
16. Income Tax a. Value added tax
17. Excise duty b. 1 July 2017
18. VAT c. Smuggling
19. GST d. Direct tax
20. Black money e. Indirect tax
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Unit – 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

21. Entrepreneur a. Export Processing Zone
22. MEPZ b. Coimbatore
23. Indian Ordance Factory c. Organizer
24. TNPL d. Aravankadu
25. Machester of south India e. Karur

V. Choose the inappropriate answer.

1. Tidal forests are found in and around____.
(a) Desert (b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari (d) The delta of Mahanadhi
2. Climate of India is affected by__________.
(a) Latitudinal extent (b) Altitude (c) Distance from the sea (d) Soil
Pick the odd one out
3. a) Wheat b) Rice c) Millets d) Coffee
4. a) Khadar b) Bhangar c) Alluvial soil d) Black soil
5. a) Inundational canals b) Perennial canals c) Tanks d) Canals
Volume – II
ECONOMICS
Unit – 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu
1. Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi
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2. Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
a) TIDCO b) SIDCO c) MEPG d) SIPCOT
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VI. CAPTION QUESTIONS
HISTORY
UNIT:1 Outbreak Of World War I and its Aftermath:
1. Imperialism
a) What do you know of monopoly capitalism?
b UNIT:1 Outbreak Of World War I and its Aftermath
) How did Japan emerge as an imperial power?
c) Why did the industrial countries need colonies in the nineteenth century?
d) What were the contrasts capitalism produced?
2. German Emperor:
a) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
b) What was the violent form of Germany called?
c) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
d) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
3. Balkan Wars:
a) Why was Balkan League formed?
b) What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
c) Who were defeated in this war?
d) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?

UNIT 2 : The World between Two World Wars

4. Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-China :
a) Define the concept of decolonization.
b) What were the three States that formed Indo-China.
c) How did Communist ideas help in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism.
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d) Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?

5. Ho -Chi -Minh:
a) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
b) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
c) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh's Revolutionary Youth Movement?
d) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
6. Political developments in South America:
a) By which year did the whole of South America become free from European domination?
b) How many republics came into being from the Central America?
c) In which year was Cuba occupied by the USA?
d) What made oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America?

UNIT 3 : World War II:

7. Battle of Stalingrad:
a) When did Germany attack Stalingrad?
b) What were the main manufactures of Stalingrad?
c) What was the name of the plan formulated by Hitler to attack Stalingrad?
d) What is the significance of the Battle of Stalingrad?
8. Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia:
a) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
b) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
c) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
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d) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
9. General Assembly and Security Council:
a) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
b) What is the Holocaust?
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c) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
d) What is meant by veto?

UNIT 4: The World after World War II

10. Cold War
a) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
b) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
c) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
d) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
11. Korean War:
a) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
b) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
c) How long did the Korean War last?
d) What was the human cost of the War?
12. Non-Aligned Movement (NAM):
a) When and where was the first conference on Non-Aligned Movement held?
b) Who were the prominent personalities present in the first conference?
c) What were the objectives of NAM?
d) List out any two basic principles of Non-Alignment Movement enunciated in the Belgrade
Conference.?
UNIT 5: Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th - Century
13. Aligarh Movement.:
a) What is the main aim of this Movement?
b) Who is considered the soul of this Movement?
c) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
d) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
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14. Ramalinga Adigal.:

a) What is Jeevakarunya?
b) What are the Songs of Grace?
c) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam?
d) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
15. Deoband Movement.:
a) Who were the organizers of this Movement?
b) What were the two main objectives of the Movement?
c) Who founded the school at Deoband?
d) Against whom the fatwa was issued by Deoband Ulema?
Volume – II
Unit – 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu
16. Velunachiyar
a) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
b) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
c) Whom did she marry?
d) What was the name of her daughter?
17. Dheeran Chinnamalai
a) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
b) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
c) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan?
d) Why and where was he hanged to death?
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 www.nammakalvi.in

Unit – 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the Birth of Nationalism

18. Deccan Riots
a) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan
appear?
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b) What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
c) What did it result in?
d) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
19. The Revolt of 1857
a) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
b) Who was proclaimed the Sahhenshae- Hindustan in Delhi?
c) Who was the correspondent of London Times who reported on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
d) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
20. Indian National Congress
a) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed ?
b) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
c) Where was the first session of IndianNational Congress held?
d) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?

Unit – 8 Nationalism Gandhian Phase

21. Gandhi and Mass nationalism
a) Which incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi?
b) Name the works that influenced Gandhi?
c) How did Gandhi use satyagraha as a strategy in South Africa?
d) What do you know about the Champaran Satyagraha?
22. Constructive Programme of Gandhi
a) What is constructive programme?
b) What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
c) How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
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d) What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?

23. Subhas Chandra Bose and INA
a) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
b) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
c) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
d) Name the slogan provided by Subhas Chandra Bose.

Unit – 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

24. Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu
a) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
b) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
c) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
d) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
25. Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu
a) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
b) Why did Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry?
c) Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
d) What did Vanchinathan do?
26. Non Brahmin Movement
a) Why was the South Indian Liberal Federation formed?
b) What is the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
c) Why did EVR join the Non-Brahmin Movement?
d) What do you know about anti-Hindi agitation?
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Unit – 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu
27. Periyar E.V.R
a) When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
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b) What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
c) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
d) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
28. Labour Movement in Tamilnadu
a) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras.
b) Identify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
c) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
d) Who organised the first ever celebrationof May Day in Madras and which year?
29. Maraimalai Adigal
a) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
b) Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
c) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
d) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?

ALL THE BEST

BY
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R.MEGANATHAN. MA,B.ed,DTEd
( B,T ASST. SOCIAL SCIENCE)
GHSS, VEEDUR 605652
PH: 9543255318

www.nammakalvi.in
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